Cybersecurity Assessment

Q1. According to the shared responsibility model, which cloud computing model places the most responsibility on the cloud service provider (CSP)?

Hybrid Cloud
Software as a Service (SaaS)
Platform as a Service (PaaS)
Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

Q2. Which option removes the risk of multitenancy in cloud computing?

PaaS
public cloud
private cloud
IaaS

Q3. Your organization recently implemented a unified messaging solution and VoIP phones on every desktop. You are responsible for researching the vulnerabilities of the VoIP system. Which type of attack are VoIP phones most vulnerable to experiencing?

denial-of-service
brute force attacks
malware
buffer overflow

Q4. Which security control cannot produce an active response to a security event?

cloud access security broker (CASB)
intrusion prevention system (IPS)
intrusion detection system (IDS)
next generation firewall

An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device or software application that monitors a network or systems for malicious activity or policy violations.

Quizlet

Q5. Packet sniffer is also called _.

SIEM
UTM
protocol analyzer
data sink

Q6. Which option tests code while it is in operation?

code review
code analysis
static analysis
dynamic analysis

Q7. Which option describes testing that individual software developers can conduct on their own code?

gray box testing
integration testing
white box testing
unit testing

Q8. In black box penetration testing, what information is provided to the tester about the target environment?

none
limited details of server and network infrastructure
all information
limited details of server infrastructure

Q9. Which security control can best protect against shadow IT by identifying and preventing use of unsanctioned cloud apps and services?

intrusion prevention system (IPS)
next generation firewall
cloud access security broker (CASB)
intrusion detection system (IDS)

Q10. Which option describes the best defense against collusion?

monitoring of normal employee system and data access patterns
applying system and application updates regularly
fault tolerant infrastructure and data redundancy
separation of duties and job rotation

Stack Exchange

Q11. During a penetration test, you find a file containing hashed passwords for the system you are attempting to breach. Which type of attack is most likely to succeed in accessing the hashed passwords in a reasonable amount of time?

rainbow table attack
pass-the-hash attack
password spray attack
brute force attack

A rainbow table attack is a more efficient and effective way of cracking many hashed passwords, whereas brute-forcing would take much longer and may not complete in a reasonable amount of time.

Professor Messer.

Q12. Which area is DMZ?

4
1
2
3

Q13. You configure an encrypted USB drive for a user who needs to deliver a sensitive file at an in-person meeting. What type of encryption is typically used to encrypt the file?

file hash
asymmetric encryption
digital signature
symmetric encryption

Q14. What is the difference between DRP and BCP

DRP works to keep a business up and running despite a disaster. BCP works to restore the original business capabilities.
BCP works to keep a business up and running despite a disaster. DRP works to restore the original business capabilities.
BCP is part of DRP.
DRP is part of BCP.

Q15. Which aspect of cybersecurity do Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks affect the most?

non-repudiation
integrity
availability
confidentiality

Q16. You need to recommend a solution to automatically assess your cloud-hosted VMs against CIS benchmarks to identify deviations from security best practices. What type of solution should you recommend?

Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM)
Intrusion Detection and Prevention System (IDPS)
Cloud Workload Protection Platforms (CWPP)
Cloud Access Security Brokers (CASBs)

Q17. _ validates the integrity of data files.

Compression
Hashing
Symmetric encryption
Stenography

Q18. Which is an example of privacy regulation at the state government level in the U.S.?

CCPA
GDPR
NIST Privacy Framework
OSPF

Q19. what is the term for the policies and technologies implemented to protect, limit, monitor, audit, and govern identities with access to sensitive data and resources?

identity and access management (IAM)
privileged account management (PAM)
authentication and authorization
least privilege

Q20. You have configured audit settings in your organization's cloud services in the event of a security incident. What type of security control is an audit trail?

preventive control
detective control
directive control
corrective control

Q21. What is the name for a short-term interruption in electrical power supply?

grayout
blackout
brownout
whiteout

Q22. Your security team recommends adding a layer of defense against emerging persistent threats and zero-day exploits for all endpoints on your network. The solution should offer protection from external threats for network-connected devices, regardless of operating system. Which solution is best suited to meet this requirement?

Security Information Event Management (SIEM)
Extended Detection and Response (XDR)
next generation firewall (NGFW)
Cloud App Security Broker (CASB)

Q23. Which is not a threat modeling methodology?

TRIKE
TOGAF
STRIDE
MITRE ATT&CK

Q24. You organization is conducting a pilot deployment of a new e-commerce application being considered for purchase. You need to recommend a strategy to evaluate the security of the new software. Your organization does not have access to the application's source code.

Which strategy should you choose?

dynamic application security testing
unit testing
white box testing
static application security testing

Q25. You need to disable the camera on corporate devices to prevent screen capture and recording of sensitive documents, meetings, and conversations. Which solution would be be suited to the task?

Mobile Device Management (MDM)
Data Loss Prevention (DLP)
Intrusion Detection and Prevention System (IDPS)
cloud access security broker (CASB)

Q26. How many keys would be necessary to accomodate 100 users in an asymmetric cryptography system?

200
400
100
300

Explaintion: The formula for asymmetric encryption is 2n; where n is the number of communicating parties.

Q27. Two competing online retailers process credit card transactions for customers in countries on every continent. One organization is based in the United States. The other is based in the Netherlands. With which regulation must both countries comply while ensuring the security of these transactions?

Federal Information Security Managment Act (FISMA)
Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI-DSS)
General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
International Organization for Standardization and Internation Electronical Commission (ISO/IEC 27018)

Explaintion: The Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS) is the global card industry security standard that is required of all entities that store, process, or transmit cardholder data, including financial institutions, online retailers and service providers.

PCI Security Overview

Q28. What provides a common language for describing security incidents in a structures and repeatable manner?

Common event format
common weakness enumeration
common vulnerabilties and exposures
common vulnerability scoring system

Explaination: The Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) system provides a reference-method for publicly known information-security vulnerabilities and exposures.

Q29. Which type of application can intercept sensative information such as passwoprds on a network segment?

log server
network scanner
firewall
protocol analyzer

Explanation: A protocol analyzer is a tool used to capture and analyze signals and data traffic over a communication channel.

WireShark is a protocol analyzer.

Q30. An attacker has discovered that they can deduce a sensitive piece of confidential information by analyzing multiple pieces of less sensative public data.

aggregation
inference
SQL injection
cross-origin resouce sharing

Explaination: An Inference Attack is a data mining technique performed by analyzing data in order to illegitimately gain knowledge about a subject or database. A subject's sensitive information can be considered as leaked if an adversary can infer its real value with a high confidence. Source: (Wikipedia).

Q31. What act grants an authenticated party permission to perform an action or access a resource?

Zero Trust Security
Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
authorization
Single Sign-On

Okata.com

Q32. According to GDPR, a data _ is the person about whom data is being collected.

processor
object
subject
controller

Intersoft Consulting

Q33. Which is not a principle of zero trust security?

use least privilege access
verify explicitly
trust but verify
assume breach

Explaination: zero trust assumes that the system will be breached and designs security as if there is no perimeter. Hence, don’t trust anything by default.

NIST

Q34. Which attack exploits input validation vulnerabilities?

ARP spoofing
pharming attacks
cross-site scripting (XSS)
DNS poisoning

White Hat Sec

Q35. You are a security analyst, and you receive a text message alerting you of a possible attack. Which security control is the least likely to produce this type of alert?

IDS
SIEM
packet sniffer
IPS

Q35. SQL injection inserts a code fragment that makes a database statement universally true, like _.

SELECT * FROM users WHERE username = " AND 1=1--'
SELECT * FROM users WHERE username = " AND 1!=1--'
SELECT * FROM users WHERE username = " OR 1=1--'
SELECT * FROM users WHERE username = " OR 1!=1--'

Q37. Which type of security assessment requires access to source code?

static analysis
black box testing
dynamic analysis
penetration testing

Q38. Which option is an open-source solution to scanning a network for active hosts and open ports?

Autopsy
Snort
Nmap
Wireshark

nmap is a port scanner https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nmap wireshark is a traffic analyzer snort is an IDS autopsy is for forensic analysis

Q39. When implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) strategy, what is the first step in the process?

Evaluate the features of available DLP products to determine which best meet your organizations's needs.
Examine the flow of sensitive data in your organization to better understand usage patterns.
Conduct an inventory of all the data in your organization to establish classifications based on sensitivity.
Conduct a risk assessment to determine the best data labeling strategy for your organization.

Q40. Which malware changes an operating system and conceals its tracks?

virus
worm
rootkit
Trojan horse

Q41. Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) use _ to create a secure connection between two networks.

encryption
a metropolitan area network
a virtual local area network
a wide area network

Q42. What is the process of challenging a user to prove their identity?

authentication
Single Sign-On
authorization
Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

Q43. Which cyberattack aims to exhaust an application's resources, making the application unavailable to legitimate users?

SQL injection
dictionary attack
Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)
rainbow table attack

Q44. You are a recent cybersecurity hire, and your first assignment is to present on the possible threats to your organization. Which of the following best describes the task?

risk mitigation
threat assessment
risk management
enumeration

Q45. You are at a coffee shop and connect to a public wireless access point (WAP). What a type of cybersecurity attack are you most likely to experience?

man-in-the-middle attack
back door
logic bomb
virus

Q46. You have been tasked with recommending a solution to centrally manage mobile devices used throughout your organization. Which technology would best meet this need?

Extended Detection and Responde (XDR)
Security Information Event Management (SIEM)
Intrusion Detection and Prevention System (IDPS)
Mobile Device Management (MDM)

Q47. Which type of vulnerability cannot be discovered in the course of a typical vulnerability assessment?

file permissions
buffer overflow
zero-day vulnerability
cross-site scripting

Q48. The DLP project team is about to classify your organization's data. Whats is the primary purpose of classifying data?

It identifies regulatory compliance requirements.
It prioritizes IT budget expenditures.
It quantifies the potential cost of a data breach.
It establishes the value of data to the organization.

Q49. You are responsible for managing security of your organization's public cloud infrastructure. You need to implement security to protect the data and applications running in a variety of IaaS and PaaS services, including a new Kubernetes cluster. What type of solution is best suited to this requirement?

Cloud Workload Protection Platforms (CWPP)
Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM)
Cloud Access Security Brokers (CASBs)
Intrusion Detection and Prevention System (IDPS)

Q50. Sharing account credentials violates the _ aspect of access control.

identification
authorization
accounting
authentication

Q51. You have recovered a server that was compromised in a malware attack to its previous state. What is the final step in the incident response process?

Eradication / Remediation
Certification
Reporting
Lessons Learned

Q52. Which type of security assessment requires access to source code?

dynamic analysis
static analysis
penetration testing
black box testing

Q53. Which encryption type uses a public and private key pair for encrypting and decrypting data?

asymmetric
symmetric
hashing
all of these answers

Q54. You have just identified and mitigated an active malware attack on a user's computer, in which command and control was established. What is the next step in the process?

Reporting
Recovery
Eradiction / Remediation
Lessons Learned

Explanation: Pages 29 to 31 ->

Q55. Which programming language is most susceptible to buffer overflow attacks?

C
Java
Ruby
Python

Q56. Which list correctly describes risk management techniques?

risk acceptance, risk mitigation, risk containment, and risk qualification
risk avoidance, risk transference, risk containment, and risk quantification
risk avoidance, risk mitigation, risk containment, and risk acceptance
risk avoidance, risk transference, risk mitigation, and risk acceptance

Q57. To implement encryption in transit, such as with the HTTPS protocol for secure web browsing, which type(s) of encryption is/are used?

asymmetric
both symmetric and asymmetric
neither symmetric or asymmetric
symmetric

Q58. Which type of program uses Windows Hooks to capture keystrokes typed by the user, hides in the process list, and can compromise their system as well as their online access codes and password?

trojan
keystroke collector
typethief
keylogger

Q59. How does randsomware affect a victim's files?

by destroying them
by encrypting them
by stealing them
by selling them

Q60. Your computer has been infected, and is sending out traffic to a targeted system upon receiving a command from a botmaster. What condition is your computer currently in?

It has become a money mule.
It has become a zombie.
It has become a bastion host.
It has become a botnet.

Q61. You choose a cybersecurity framework for your financial organization that implements an effective and auditable set of governance and management processes for IT. Which framework are you choosing?

C2M2
NIST SP 800-37
ISO/IEC 27001
COBIT

Q62. NIST issued a revision to SP 800-37 in December 2018. It provides a disciplined, structured, and flexible process for managing security and privacy risk. Which type of document is SP 800-37??

a risk management framework
a guide to risk assessments
a guideline for vulnerability testing
a step-by-step guide for performing business impact analyses

Q63. The most notorious military-grade advanced persistent threat was deployed in 2010, and targeted centrifuges in Iran. What was this APT call?

duqu
agent BTZ
stuxnet
flame

Q64. Where would you record risks that have been identified and their details, such as their ID and name, classification of information, and the risk owner?

in the risk assessment documentation
in the risk register
in the business impact ledger
in the Orange Book

Q65. To prevent an incident from overwhelming resources, _ is necessary.

disconnection from the network
early containment
continuation of monitoring for other incidents
eradication of the issues

Q66. FUD is expensive and often causes high drama over low risk. Which computer chip exploits were reported by CNN as needing to be completely replaced, but were later fixed with firmware updates?

fire and ice exploits
meltdown and spectre exploits
Intel and STMicro CPU exploits
super microboard and Apple iPhone exploits

Q67. The ASD Top Four are application whitelisting, patching of applications, patching of operating systems, and limiting administrative privileges. What percent of breaches do these account for?

40 percent
60 percent
85 percent
100 percent

Q68. You are working in the security operations center analyzing traffic on your network. You detect what you believe to be a port scan. What does this mean?

This could be a specific program being run by your accounting department.
This is an in-progress attack and should be reported immediately
This is normal operation for your business.
This could be a precursor to an attack.

Q69. How often is the ISF Standard of Good Practice updated?

annual
biannually
bimonthly
monthly

Q70. Your incident response team is unable to contain an incident because they lack authority to take action without management approval. Which critical step in the preparation phase did your team skip?

From an incident response committee to oversee any incidents that may occur.
Get preauthorized to take unilateral action and make or direct emergency changes.
Bring management in as leadership on the incident response team.
Assign a head of the emergency response team who has the correct authority

Q71. NIST SP 800-53 is one of two important control frameworks used in cybersecurity. What is the other one?

ISO 27001
NIST SP 800-54
ISO 27002
NIST SP 751-51

Q72. Which organization, established by NIST in 1990, runs workshops to foster coordination in incident prevention, stimulate rapid reaction to incidents, and allow experts to share information?

Forum of Incident Response and Security Teams
Crest UK Response Teams
Community of Computer Incident Response Teams
NIST Special Publication 800-61 Response Teams

Q73. You have implemented controls to mitigate the threats, vulnerabilities, and impact to your business. Which type of risk is left over?

inherent risk
residual risk
applied risk
leftover risk

Q74. There are four possible treatments once an assessment has identified a risk. Which risk treatment implements controls to reduce risk?

risk mitigation
risk acceptance
risk avoidance
risk transfer

Q75. Which security control scheme do vendors often submit their products to for evaluation, to provide an independent view of product assurance?

common criteria
risk management certification board
OWASP security evaluation
ISO 27000

Q76. Which organization has published the most comprehensive set of controls in its security guideline for the Internet of Things?

IoT ISACA
IoT Security Foundation
OWASP
GSMA

Q77. Which main reference coupled with the Cloud Security Alliance Guidance comprise the Security Guidance for Critical Areas of Focus in Cloud Computing?

ISO 27001
ISO 27017
cloud security guidelines
cloud controls matrix

Q78. What are the essential characteristics of the reference monitor?

It is versatile, accurate, and operates at a very high speed.
It is tamper-proof, can always be invoked, and must be small enough to test.
It is restricted, confidential, and top secret

Q79. According to NIST, what is the first action required to take advantage of the cybersecurity framework?

Identify the key business outcomes.
Understand the threats and vulnerabilities.
Conduct a risk assessment.
Analyze and prioritize gaps to create the action plan.

Q80. You are implementing a cybersecurity program in your organization and want to use the "de facto standard" cybersecurity framework. Which option would you choose?

the ISACA Cypersecurity Framework
the COBIT Cypersecurity Framework
the ISC2 Cypersecurity Framework
the NIST Cypersecurity Framework

Q81. In 2014, 4,278 IP addresses of zombie computers were used to flood a business with over one million packets per minute for about one hour. What is this type of attack called?

a salami attack
a DoS (Denial of Service) attack
a DDoS (Distributed Denial of Service) attack
a botnet attack

Q82. The regulatory requirements for notifications of data breaches, particularly the European General Data Protection Regulations, have had what sort of effect on business?

an increased business liability in the event of a data breach
an increased consumer liability in the event of a data breach
a decreased consumer liability in the event of a data breach
a decreased business liability in the event of a data breach

Q83. Which compliance framework governs requirements for the U.S. healthcare industry?

FedRAMP
GDPR
PCI-DSS
HIPAA

Q84. Your organization services customer orders with a custom ordering system developed in-house. You are responsible for recommending a cloud model to meet the following requirements:?

Control of security required for regulatory compliance
Legacy application and database support
Scalability to meet seasonal increases in demand
[ ]

Q85. What is the difference between DevOps and DevSecOps?

DevSecOps requires the inclusion of cybersecurity engineers in the CI/CD process of DevOps.
DevSecOps slows down the CI/CD process of DevOps.
DevSecOps places security controls in the CI/CD process of DevOps.
DevSecOps lets cybersecurity engineers dictate the CI/CD process of DevOps.

Q86. When does static application security testing require access to source code?

always
only when assessing regulatory compliance
only if following the Agile model
never

Explanation:

Q87. Your organization service customer orders with a custom ordering system developed in-hose. You are responsible for recommending a cloud model to meet the following requirements:

Control of security required for regulatory compliance
Legacy application and database support
Scalability to meet seasonal increases in demand

Which cloud model is the best option for these requirements?

government cloud
public cloud
hybrid cloud
private cloud

Q88. You have just conducted a port scan of a network. There is no well-known port active. How do you find a webserver running on a host, which uses a random port number?

Give up on the current target network and move on to the next one.
Switch to another network scanning tool. Resort to more resource-intensive probing, like launching random attacks to all open ports.
Turn on the stealth mode in your network scanning tool. Check whether you missed any other active ports associated with web servers.
Turn on additional options in your network scanning tool to further investigate the details (type and version) of applications running on the rest of the active ports.

Q89. Executives in your organization exchange emails with external business partners when negotiating valuable business contracts. To ensure that these communications are legally defensible, the security team has recommended that a digital signature be added to these message.

What are the primary goals of the digital signature in this scenario? (Choose the best answer.)

integrity and non-repudiation
privacy and non-repudiation
privacy and confidentiality
integrity and privacy

Q90. Which option is a mechanism to ensure non-repudiation?

MD5
Caesar cipher
symmetric-key encryption
asymmetric-key encryption